1. I am wondering why acts of gross indecency (what defines such acts? Any clear boundary?) committed by heterosexual or female couples are considered fine under the law, while acts of gross indecency committed by male couples is a crime whether it is in the public or private space. So acts of gross indecency have different levels of acceptable grossness when performed by different groups?
2. On the matter of same-sex couples, are male couples inferior beings compared to female couples which therefore warrant such unequal treatment?
3. And is it not more valid if people decide if acts of gross indecency are acceptable or not as a whole, rather than applying it differently on different groups? What’s the justification(s) for such differences?
Insight of me 